New (Question on Faith and Homosexuality, the relationship between the two)

[fredv3b]

My point was that the belief that everything in the Old Testament still holds true leads to some absurd conclusions for the great majority of people that regard themselves as Christian. They all believe that the coming of Jesus Christ really changed things, and that God gave them a new law to live by. There is certainly debate about what parts of the Old Testament still hold true and which do not.

Plus, the act of God suddenly nullifying everything he said before simply because "he sees fit" is entirely insensitive and very wishy-washy. See here: Tumblrweeds

I didn't say he nullified everything, but never mind. To whom is it insensitive? You may regard it as wishy-washy but as I said above Christians believe that the teachings of Jesus Christ really did change the rules.

I accept that in Romans there is the clearest statement within the Bible that homosexuality is sinful. However I do not recognise the final part of your quote. Here is what the online King James Bible gives for Romans 1:23-28

23 And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things.
24 Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves:
25 Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.
26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
28 And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient;

The question here is, is homosexuality the sin or the punishment?

For the sake of argument let us assume that Paul is saying homosexuality, both male and female, is a sin. The questions is how strongly should we weigh this single passage against the rest of the New Testament? We should remember that these are Paul's own words, he is not quoting Christ. It should also be weighed against other passages, for example Matthew 8:5-8

5 And when Jesus was entered into Capernaum, there came unto him a centurion, beseeching him,
6 And saying, Lord, my servant lieth at home sick of the palsy, grievously tormented.
7 And Jesus saith unto him, I will come and heal him.
8 The centurion answered and said, Lord, I am not worthy that thou shouldest come under my roof: but speak the word only, and my servant shall be healed.

In this passage 'servant' is the translation of the Greek word 'pais' (written in the Latin alphabet), a number of other translations have been offered including male-lover.