I have heard a lot of people say over my lifetime that gays are more susceptible to HIV/aids and other STDs then heteros. Does this make any sense to people? It sounds ridiculous to me and I'm thinking it is fear mongering. I have read that contraction during anal sex is higher than vaginal sex and have heard numerous answers as to why that might be, some sound logical others are complete garbage. One person even suggested that gay people don't wear condoms cause they don't have pregnancy to worry about...lol cause that's the only reason people wear condoms right? I have also heard that gay women are more likely to get STDs. How would that be rationalized? Any input?
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Total BS in my opinion. It isn't orientation, it's risk factors, the more of them you have, the more likely you are to contract an STD.
Unsafe sex, compromised immune system, needle use, travel to certain areas, etc... can all play into your chances of getting any STD, but orientation alone is not a factor. And just an FYI, straight guys have anal sex with straight women and, not every gay man has or even likes anal sex.
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Likelihood of contraction has a number of factors - none of which have to do with the sex or sexuality of the people involved per se.
Practice good health and taking care of yourself, loving yourself and safe sex.
The rise of the virus also happened during a period in the States when we are all sotted daily, high as kites and tricking shamelessly continuous i.e. we weren't worried about std's, you could fix those easy and quick AND we consumed more alcohol and drugs by the pound than food and water. (Please! We didn't have time for sleep there were still parties out there!)
It was so fun! But, a place ready for a disaster to happen with no one watching the door.
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Great questions, JohnD!
As I understand it, HIV/aids was initially more common in the US in gay men than in the general population (1980's and 90's). Homosexual behavior could be identified as a risk factor, but that does not mean it was a cause. Promiscuity and low level of condom use within the gay community of the time were more likely the main factors.
HIV/ aids is only contracted by contact with bodily fluids (blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk) of an infected person. It seems to be true that anal sex is significantly more risky than vaginal sex, probably because the rectal lining is more delicate and prone to minor damage during sex (and thus, exchange of fluids and possible infection).
At this time, the Mayo Clinic does not list same-sex behavior as a risk factor for HIV/aids, but the National Institute of Health still does. It takes time for the scientific process to sort these things out. Unprotected sex with anonymous partners and prostitutes is generally considered a risk factor.
It is important to know that a person with HIV/aids can be contagious without showing any symptoms, and can be entirely unaware of their infection. Be smart, be safe!
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Yeah, gays are more succeptible, because of the practices they engage in.
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I understand that anal sex would make you more likely to get stds than vaginal sex...but...obviously..straight men have anal sex with women. So does that mean people actually believe that gay men having anal sex is more risky than a straight man having anal sex with a woman?
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i know straight women who prefer having anal sex
a person's sexuality has nothing at all to do with what things they like doing during actual sex.
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It's only true insofar as some STI's have higher transmission rates when it comes to anal sex, and homosexual males are more likely to take part in anal sex.
Homosexual females have some of the lowest transmission rates around from what's i've heard by word of mouth.
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fear monger by bigots who use this crap to justify their anti-gay stances.
How do you know when a bigot is talking shit???? their mouth is open.
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